Actually yes, the ends *can* justify the means, and if you really believe that the justifiability of the means is completely separate from the ends, you should probably ask yourself who that belief benefits
As a counterweight for the frustrated grumping, though: I'm happy to see that several other commenters are actually making an effort to understand the problem, when it wasn't previously known to them.
Congratulations to the tildes poster reading through my posts, who completely missed the point of this post, and seemingly interpreted it as evidence that I must be irresponsible and that another commenter was right about that.
Like, you realize that this was a frustrated subtoot *of* that other commenter, right? Have you considered actually doing the introspection I've proposed in the toot? It was not rhetorical.